HW3
Research Question: Had there been no Versailles Treaty or a better treaty that was fair to the German people, could have WWII been prevented?
To start my post, I did a research on ProQuest Historical newspapers. I researched WWII causes. I found a newspaper article written in 1980, by Robert Kirsch. The title is “Hows, Whys of World War II”. In this article, the author talks about what went wrong and how the war may have been prevented.
What is said is that WWII started and had a root from WWI. This is because of Germany’s actions towards its neighbors, mostly France and England. These countries wanted a treaty that stripped away the military of Germany, and left it powerless. This may have been a fair treaty in the eyes of others, but not in the eyes of the German people and the German government. Hence why, in order to retaliate, they brought a man to power to get rid of this treaty, Adolf Hitler.
The article then goes on to say why France wanted to take all of the control, and that is because France had been a victimized way too many times by Germany. Which is an understandable reason, but Germany believed that it needed some sort of power to defend itself if others were to take advantage. My question is that, if the treaty was a more fair treaty and gave Germany some sort of power, could have the war been prevented? I believe so, since the war started with the aggression of the German people, not just Adolf Hitler.
I did not understand how to use the Archive finder. I only saw a couple of results, but it may have been due to my search. My results were papers from two different authors and that is it.
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